General, Online Test HARYANA JUDICIARY EXAM MOCK TEST 12 13 All The Best Thank you for visit ! share with friends. HARYANA JUDICIARY MOCK TEST 12 1 / 30 30. In the Code of Civil Procedure , an ex parte decree can be set aside : 1. A. Under Order IX Rule 5 2. B. Under Order IX Rule 10 3. C. Under Order IX Rule 13 4. D. Under Order IX Rule 11 2 / 30 29. Which of the following Section of the Indian Contract Act provides that the responsibility of finder of goods is similar to that of a bailee; 1. A. 70 2. B. 71 3. C. 72 4. D. 60 3 / 30 28. A sub-agent is responsible to the principal on which of the following grounds 1. A. Fraud or Negligence 2. B. Negligence or Deceit Wilful 3. C. Wilful wrong or fraud 4. D. Wilful wrong or Negligence 4 / 30 27. A general offer open for world at large can be accepted 1. A. By sending a communication of pacceptance 2. B. By complying with the conditions of offer 3. C. By tendering himself to comply the conditions of offer 4. D. None of the above 5 / 30 26. Competency to contract relates to 1. A. Age of the parties 2. B. Soundness of mind of the parties 3. C. Both age & soundness of mind 4. D. Intelligence of the parties 6 / 30 25. An agreement enforceable by law at the instance of one party & not of other party under section 2(i) is called 1. A. A valid contract 2. B. An illegal contract 3. C. A void contract 4. D. A voidable contract 7 / 30 24. In relation to devolution of joint liabilities, as a general rule the Indian Contract Act incorporates the principle of; 1. A. Survivorship 2. B. Succession 3. C. Both (A) & (B) 4. D. None of the above 8 / 30 23. Indecent and scandalous questions may be forbidden by the court under; 1. A. Section 149 2. B. Section 151 3. C. Section 150 4. D. Section 152 9 / 30 22. Under section 57 of the Evidence Act, the court Is not bound to take judicial notice of which of the following facts; 1. A. The existence of every state recognised by the Government of India 2. B. The title of every state recognised by the Government of India 3. C. The national flag of every state recognised by the Government of India 4. D. The national emblem of every state recognised by the Government of India 10 / 30 21. Under section 45 of Evidence Act, which of the following have not been mentioned as points on which opinion of experts is relevant3; 1. A. Point of foreign law 2. B. Point of art 3. C. Point of domestic law 4. D. Point of science 11 / 30 20. Section 32 of Evidence Act does not speak of which of the following kind of persons; 1. A. Person who is dead 2. B. Person who cannot be found 3. C. Person who is unwilling to give evidence 4. D. Person who has become incapable of giving evidence 12 / 30 19. Which one of the following has not been mentioned as a ground under section 24 rendering a confession by an accused person irrelevant 1. A. Inducement 2. B. Promise 3. C. Deceit 4. D. Threat 13 / 30 18. Oral admission as to contents of electronic records are relevant when; 1. A. The party proposing to prove them shows that he is entitled to give secondary evidence of the same 2. B. The genuineness of the electronic record produced is in question 3. C. Both (A) and (B) 4. D. None of the above 14 / 30 17. Which of the following state of minds has not en expressly mentioned in section 14 of the Indian Evidence Act; 1. A. Intention 2. B. Motive 3. C. Reshness 4. D. Ill will 15 / 30 16. Which of the following is true; 1. A. There cannot be further cross- examination after re-examination 2. B. There can be further cross-examination after re-examination as per Section 137 3. C. There can be further cross-examination fter re-examination as per Section 138 4. D. There can be further cross-examination after re-examination as per Section 139 16 / 30 15. The provisions of section 126 of the Evidence Act dealing with confidentiality of professional communication shall apply to; 1. A. Clerks of barristers 2. B. Servants of pleaders 3. C. Interpreters of barristers 4. D. All of the above 17 / 30 14. Which of the following does not figure in section 115 while dealing with applying the principle of Estoppel; 1. A. Conduct 2. B. Omission 3. C. Act 4. D. Declaration 18 / 30 13. If a child is born within days after the dissolution of a valid marriage, it is a conclusive proof of the legitimacy of the child 1. A. 275 2. B. 285 3. C. 270 4. D. 280 19 / 30 12. The rule that once the terms of any contract have been proved by documentary evidence, no evidence of any oral statement shall be admitted for contradicting such terms has …………………..provisos establishing variations to the rule 1. A. 6 2. B. 4 3. C. 3 4. D. 7 20 / 30 11. A person is presumed to be alive if it is shown that he was alive within ………………years 1. A. Fourteen 2. B. Seven 3. C. Twenty 4. D. Thirty 21 / 30 10. Which one of the following is not a public document; 1. A. Documents forming records of acts of tribunals w 2. B. Documents forming records of acts of public officers of India 3. C. Documents forming records of acts of public officers of a foreign country 4. D. Public records kept of private documents 22 / 30 9. The Best Evidence Ruie in relation to documentary evidence is incorporated in section; 1. A. 61 2. B. 65 3. C. 64 4. D. 66 23 / 30 8. The stipulation that facts which enable the court to determine the amount of damages relevant is incorporated in Section Evidence Act; 1. A. 12 2. B. 8 3. C. 10 4. D. 11 24 / 30 7. Res Gestae' literally means; 1. A. Things done 2. B. Things spoken 3. C. Same transaction 4. D. Things then 25 / 30 6. Which one of the following has not been mentioned in the definition of "Documents" as the means by which any matter is expressed or described upon any substance; 1. A. Letters 2. B. Symbols 3. C. Figures 4. D. Marks 26 / 30 5. Which of the following is not a 'fact'; 1. A. Mental condition 2. B. Relation of things 3. C. State of things 4. D. None of the above 27 / 30 4. The Information Technology Amendment Act came into force in; 1. A. 2009 2. B. 2008 3. C. 2007 4. D. 2010 28 / 30 3. In which of the following cases it has been held that presence of a lawyer at the time interrogation cannot be demanded as a matter of right; 1. A. Poolpandi and other v. Superintendent, Central Excise 2. B. Senior Intelligence Officer v. Jugol Kishore Samra 3. C. Both (A) and (B) 4. D. None of the above 29 / 30 2. In case of piea Bargaining by the parties; 1. A. No judgement may be delivered by the 2. B. Judgement may be delivered in private to the parties 3. C. Judgement shall be delivered in the open Court 4. D. The bargain struck by the parties is to operate as the Judgement 30 / 30 1. Chapter XXIA of the Cr.P.C. was incorporated in the year: 1. A. 2003 2. B. 2006 3. C. 2005 4. D. 2004 Your score is The average score is 59% Restart quiz
