General, Online Test HARYANA JUDICIARY EXAM MOCK TEST 30 9 All The Best Thank you for visit ! share with friends. HARYANA JUDICIARY MOCK TEST 30 1 / 30 30. A, a snake-charmer, persuaded B to allow himself to be bitten by a poisonous snake, including B to believe that he had power to protect B from harm. B consented, and as a result died: 1. A. A is not liable, as consented to suffer the harm 2. B. A is liable, although B consented, such on was founded a consent misconception fact, i.e., in the belief that A had the power to cure snake-bites 3. C. A is liable for murder and not culpable homicide 4. D. None of the above is correct 2 / 30 29. Sentence of imprisonment for non-payment of fine under Section 64 of IPC: 1. A. shall be in excess of any other imprisonment to which an offender has been sentenced 2. B. shall be concurrent of any othex imprisonment 3. C. shall not be in excess of any other imprisonment 4. D. both (B) and (C) 3 / 30 28. The right to 'equality before the law' contained in Article 14 of the Constitution of India is available to: 1. A. natural persons only 2. B. legal persons only 3. C. citizens of India 4. D. all persons whether natural or legal 4 / 30 27. On receipt of a Constitution Amendment Bill, after passing by each House of Parliament, the President: 1. A. shall give his assent 2. B. may give his assent 3. C. may withhold his assent 4. D. may return the bill for reconsideration 5 / 30 26. Double jeopardy means: 1. A. trying two persons jointly for the same offence 2. B. trying the same person for two offences at two different times 3. C. putting the same person on trial twice for the same offence 4. D. trying a person for different offences committed by him in one incident 6 / 30 25. Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of state power of reservation in admissions to educational Institutions? 1. A. caste can be the sole criterion 2. B. poverty can be the sole criterion 3. C. both caste and poverty are relevant crietria 4. D. residence in rural areas and lack of educational facilities can be the exclusive criteria 7 / 30 24. The Supreme Court does not have original jurisdiction re: a dispute between: 1. A. the Government of India and a Sate or States 2. B. the Government of India and one State on one side and one or more States on the other side 3. C. two States 4. D. a Citizen and a State 8 / 30 23. A is warehouse-keeper, Z, going on a journey, entrusts his furniture to A, under a contract that it shall be returned on payment of a stipulated sum for warehouse room. A dishonestly sells the goods. For which offence A is liable: 1. A. Cheating 2. B. Criminal misappropriation of property 3. C. Criminal breach of trust 4. D. None of the above 9 / 30 22. To establish Section 34 of IPC: 1. A. a common intention is to be proved but not overt act be proved 2. B. common intention and overt act both have to be proved 3. C. common intention need not be proved but overt act be proved 4. D. all the above 10 / 30 21. When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all: 1. A. each of such person is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone 2. B. each of such person is liable for his own overt act 3. C. each of such person shall be liable according to the extent of his participation in the crime 4. D. none of the above 11 / 30 20. Which of the following Fundamental Rights can not be suspended during emergency? 1. A. freedom under Article 19 2. B. right to Constitutional remedies under Article 32 and 226 3. C. rights under Articles 21 and 22 4. D. right under Article 20 and 21 12 / 30 19. Which one of the following proposition is correct description of the powers of the President of India under Article 356 of the Constitution? 1. A. if the Chief Minister inspite of commanding the confidence of the Legislative Assembly, can not run his government in accordance with the Constitution, the President can proclaim emergency 2. B. if the State Legislative Assembly fails to transact any business consecutively in two sessions 3. C. the President can refer the matter to the Supreme Court for advice and act in accordance with such advice 4. D. the President can not make a proclamation of emergency it the governor refuses to make a report 13 / 30 18. The text of the Preamble of the Constitution of India aims to secure: 1. A. fundamental rights to all individuals 2. B. fundamental duties to citizens of India 3. C. dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation 4. D. security of service to the Government servant 14 / 30 17. Law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all the courts within the territory of India. Here 'courts' means: 1. A. all courts including the Supreme Court of India 2. B. all courts except the Supreme Court of India 3. C. all courts including the Supreme Coun except such benches of the Supreme Court which consists of seven judgeso more; 4. D. all courts including Supreme Court except a bench of the Supreme Court which consists of all the judges of the Supreme Court 15 / 30 16. Respect for the National Flag and the National Anthem Is: 1. A. a fundamental right of every citizen 2. B. a fundamental duty of every citizen 3. C. a directive principle of state policy 4. D. an ordinary duty of every citizen 16 / 30 15. Under the Indian Constitution, which one of the following is NOT a specific ground on which the State can place restrictions on freedom of religion? 1. A. public order 2. B. morality 3. C. social justice 4. D. health 17 / 30 14. Under Section 11 of the Specific Relief Act, 1930 a contract made by a trustee in exces of his powers or in the breach of a trust is: 1. A. specifically enforceable at the instance of the trustee 2. B. specifically enforceable at the instance of the second party 3. C. specifically enforceable either at the instance of the trustee or at the instance of a second party 4. D. not specifically enforceable 18 / 30 13. In which of the following cases, the specific performance of a contract will not be ordered: 1. A. where pecuniary compensation would afford adequate relief 2. B. where the acts would require contained supervision by the Court 3. C. where the contract provides for personal affirmative acts or personal service 4. D. all the above 19 / 30 12. Rise in value since agreement Is: 1. A. a ground to refuse specific performance in case of an agreement to sell immovable property 2. B. a ground to refuse performance in case of an agreement to sell movable property 3. C. aground to refuse specific performance in case of an agreement to sell immovable and movable property both 4. D. not a ground to refuse specific pertormance in case of an agreement to sell either immovable or movable property 20 / 30 11. In case of specific performance of part of contract the purchaser: 1. A. may relinquish claim to further performance of the remaining part of contract and has right to compensation 2. B. may not relinquish claim to furthe performance of the remaining part o contract and has no right to compensation 3. C. specific performance of part of contract not possible 4. D. none of above 21 / 30 10. Section 8 of the Specific Relief Act can be invoked: 1. A. against a person who has possession or control over the article 2. B. against a person who is the owner of the article claimed 3. C. by a person not entitled to the possession of the article 4. D. in respect of an ordinary article 22 / 30 9. A suit for recovery of possession of any immovable property under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act can be filed against: 1. A. a private individual only 2. B. a government 3. C. both (A) and (B) 4. D. neither (A) nor (B) 23 / 30 8. In a sale of goods by auction, as soon as the hammer falls, the goods: 1. A. become the property of the buyer only on payment of price 2. B. become the property of buyer even if there is a condition that the goods shall not be removed before payment 3. C. become the property of the buyer only f there is no condition that the goods shall not be removed before payment 4. D. do not become the property of the buyer however, the bidder is vested with the right to deal with them as owner 24 / 30 7. Under Section 51 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, the goods are in transit so long as they are in: 1. A. possession of the carrier qua buyer 2. B. possession of the carrier qua carrier 3. C. possession of the carrier appointed by the buyer qua the buyer 4. D. none of the above 25 / 30 6. If a contract for sale of goods is for sale of two or more things under an entire contract, the perishing of some of them would: 1. A. avoid the whole contract 2. B. not avoid the contract at all 3. C. avoid the contract relating to the goods perished and not the whole contract 4. D. either (B) or (C) 26 / 30 5. A'sale of goods' under tne Sale of Goods Act, 1930, creates: 1. A. a jus in rem 2. B. a jus in personam 3. C. both (A) and (B) 4. D. either (A) or (B) depending on the facts and circumstances of the case 27 / 30 4. "Mercantile agent" means the person: 1. A. who sells goods, or consigns for the purpose of sale, or buy goods or raises money on security of goods 2. B. who only sells or purchases 3. C. who only consigns goods 4. D. who only transfers goods 28 / 30 3. Which of the following are 'goods' within the meaning of Section 2(7) of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930: 1. A. things attached to land which are agreed to be severed before sale 2. B. things forming part of the land agreed to be served before sale 3. C. both (A) and (B) 4. D. neither (A) nor (B) 29 / 30 2. B the proprietor of a newspaper, publishes, at A's request, a libel upon C in the paper, and A agrees to indemnify B against the consequences of the publication, and all costs and damages of the action in respect thereof. Ris sued by C and has to pay damages and also incurs expenses. Decide in the light of Section 224 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. 1. A. A is not liable to B upon indemnity 2. B. A is liable to B upon indenmnity 3. C. A is not liable to Cupon indemnity 4. D. None of above 30 / 30 1. The pawnee has a right to retain the goods pledged: 1. A. for payment of debt interest & alI necessary expenses in respect of goods pledged 2. B. for paymentof debt other than the debt in respect of goods pledged 3. C. for payment of interest & necessary expenses in respect of goods other than the one pledged 4. D. all the above Your score is The average score is 61% Restart quiz
