General, Online Test HARYANA JUDICIARY EXAM MOCK TEST 6 31 All The Best Thank you for visit ! share with friends. HARYANA JUDICIARY MOCK TEST 6 1 / 30 30. The instrument may be rectified if: 1. A. misrepresentation by a party 2. B. undue influence by a party 3. C. mutual mistakes of parties 4. D. in all the above 2 / 30 29. Suit for dispossession of immovable propertu under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 should be brought: 1. A. within one year from dispossession 2. B. within six months from dispossession 3. C. within three months from dispossession 4. D. within three years from dispossession. 3 / 30 28. The basis of specific relief is: 1. A. law of equity 2. B. common law 3. C. roman law 4. D. all of the above 4 / 30 27. The contents of documents may be proved by : 1. A. direct evidence only 2. B. indirect evidence only 3. C. direct evidence & indirect evidence 4. D. none of the above 5 / 30 26. Exception to the rule hearsay evidence is not admissible', is laid down in the Indian Singhla's Judicial Service Esnminations Evidence Act: 1. (A) Section 29 2. (C) Section 31 3. (B) Section 30 4. (D) Section 32 6 / 30 25. Under Section 122 of the Indian Evidence Act, privilege is available to: 1. A. judges and magistrates 2. B. husband and wife 3. C. professionals 4. D. none of the above 7 / 30 24. For the admissibility of a dying declaration, it is not necessary that the statement: 1. A. relates to cause of death 2. B. the person making the statement must be under expectation of death 3. C. the person making the statement must be competent 4. D. the statement must be complete. 8 / 30 23. An admission is a statement that may be: 1. A. in oral form only 2. B. in documentary form only 3. C. in electronic form only 4. D. all the above 9 / 30 22. A deaf-mute's evidence made by writing in open court, shall be deemed to be: 1. A. documentary evidence 2. B. hearsay evidence 3. C. oral evidence 4. D. primary evidence 10 / 30 21. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to: 1. A. proceedings under Administrative Tribunals 2. B. proceedings under the Commission of Inquiry Act, 1952 3. C. preceedings before Industrial Tribunals 4. D. none of the above 11 / 30 20. Facts judicially noticeable: 1. A. may be proved 2. B. need not be proved 3. C. need to be proved 4. D. none of the above 12 / 30 19. Estoppel is: 1. A. rule of evidence 2. B. used as defence 3. C. rule of equity 4. D. all the above 13 / 30 18. 'A' agrees to sell to 'B' his white horse in writing. 'A' has two white horses and it becomes uncertain as to which horse was sold. Here in the document there is: 1. A. patent ambiguity 2. B. latent ambiguity 3. C. no ambiguity 4. D. none of the above 14 / 30 17. A person is prosecuted for theft, evidence is sought to be produced to prove that the accused is a bad character and suspect of theft on several occasionss in the past: 1. A. bad character is relevant 2. B. the evidence was admissible 3. C. the evidence was not admissible 4. D. none of the above 15 / 30 16. The plea of 'Alibi' is established by: 1. A. prosecution 2. B. accused 3. C. either by prosecution or by accused 4. D. none of the above 16 / 30 15. By information Technology Act, 2000, amendment made in: 1. A. Section 17 of the Indian Evidence Act 2. B. Section 34 of the Indian Evidence Act 3. C. Section 35 of the Indian Evidence Act 4. D. All the above 17 / 30 14. A man is alive unless nothing has been heard about him for seven years: 1. A. it is presumption of law 2. B. it is natural presumption 3. C. it is presumption of fact 4. D. none of the above 18 / 30 13. A fact is conclusive proof of another fact. If that fact is proved than: 1. A. the court can call upon a party to prove another fact. 2. B. the court can allow opposite party to adduce the evidence to disprove another fact 3. C. both (A) and (B) 4. D. the court shall regards another fact as proved 19 / 30 12. Revisional jurisdiction of the High Court arises when the subordinate court: 1. A. exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it by law 2. B. failed to exercise a jurisdiction vested in it by law 3. C. acted in the exercise of its jurisdiction illegally 4. D. all the above 20 / 30 11. The parties to suit must submit the list of their witnesses within the time prescribed by the court but not later than: 1. A. 15 days after the issues are settled 2. B. 30 days after the issuets are settled 3. C. 45 days after the issues are settled 4. D. 90 days after the issues are settled 21 / 30 10. Code of Civil Procedure contains 1. A. 50 Orders 2. B. 52 Orders 3. C. 51 Orders 4. D. 53 Orders 22 / 30 9. No second appeal shall lie from any decree when the subject-matter of the orlginal suit is for recovery of money not exceeding: 1. A. Rs. 15,000/- 2. B. Rs. 25,000/- 3. C. Rs. 20,000/- 4. D. Rs. 30,000/- 23 / 30 8. No evidence is required to be pleaded in: 1. A. written statement 2. B. writ petitiorn 3. C. counter affidavit 4. D. all of the above 24 / 30 7. Under the provisions of the Code of Cil Procedure, the court has no inherent jurisdiction: 1. A. to restore a suit dismissed for non- payment of court fees 2. B. to restore an election petition dismissed for default 3. C. to consolidate suits based on different claims 4. D. all the above 25 / 30 6. The doctrine of constructive res judicata is explained in: 1. A. Section 11, explanation III of Coda ot Civil Procedure 2. B. Section 11, explanation IV of Code nf Civil Procedure 3. C. Section 11, explanation V of Code of Civil Procedure 4. D. Section 11, explanation VI of Code of Civil Procedure 26 / 30 5. Largest order of Code of Civil Procedure is: 1. A. order 21 2. B. order 45 3. C. order 19 4. D. order 41 27 / 30 4. The provisions relating to particulars of the written statement and counter claim is in: 1. A. order 8 of Code of Civil Procedure 2. B. order 9 of Code of Civil Procedure 3. C. order 10 of Code of Civil Procedure 4. D. order 11 of Code of Civil Procedure 28 / 30 3. The plaint shall be rejected: 1. A. if it does not disclose a cause of action 2. B. where suit appears to be barred by any law 3. C. where it is not filed in duplicate 4. D. all the above 29 / 30 2. Which maxim denote the purpose of "res judicata": 1. A. Interest rupublicae ut sit finis litum 2. B. Nemo debet lis vexari pro una et eadem causa 3. C. Resjudicata pro veritate occipiture 4. D. All of the above 30 / 30 1. The penalty may be recovered, in case any instrument not duly stamped as per the Indian Stamp Act, by: 1. A. State Government 2. B. Collector 3. C. Central Government 4. D. District Courts Your score is The average score is 71% Restart quiz BEST DISCOUNT LAW BOOKS BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW
