18 All The Best Thank you for visit ! share with friends. HARYANA JUDICIARY MOCK TEST 7 1 / 30 30. As a result of the changes introduced by the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, daughter of a coparcener in a Joint Hindu Family, governed by the Mitakshara Law, becomes a coparcener- 1. A. w.e.f 17-06-1956 2. B. w.e.f 09-09-2005 3. C. w.e.f. 20-12-2004 4. D. from the day, she was born 2 / 30 29. In which of the following decisions, the constitutional validity of section-9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, was upheld by the Supreme Court? 1. A. T. Sareetha v. Venkata Subhaiah 2. B. Saroj Rani v. Sudarshan Kumar 3. C. Smt Harvinder Kaur v. Harvinder Singh 4. D. Payal Sharma v. Supdt. Nari Niketan 3 / 30 28. Section 26 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 as amended by the Hindu Marriage (Amendment) Act, 1964, deals with- 1. A. custody of children 2. B. disposal of property 3. C. maintenance pendent lite 4. D. permanent alimony 4 / 30 27. For the purposes of section 9(3) of the Hindu Adoptlon and Maintenance Act, 1956 "mother" does not include- 1. A. a widowed mother 2. B. a divorced mother 3. C. a step-mother 4. D. a mother living separately under the decree of court 5 / 30 26. In "Blpin Chandra v. Prabhavati", AlIR 1957 SC 176, the Supreme Court explained 1. A. the concept of cruelty, 2. B. the institution of marriage, 3. C. the concept of desertion, 4. D. the concept of adultery, as applicable under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. 6 / 30 25. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I A. Githa Hariharan v. Reserve Bank of India B. Kartar Singh through Bachan Singh v. Surjan Singh C. Naveen Kohli v. Neelu Kohli D. A Jaychandra v. Aneel Kaur List-II (i) Adoption (ii) Guardianship (iii) Cruelty explained (iv) Iretrievable breakdown of marriage recommended Codes: A B C D 1. a) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) 2. b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 3. c) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) 4. d) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) 7 / 30 24. Which is not a ground for seeking divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955? 1. A. cruelty 2. B. desertion 3. C. unsoundness of mind 4. D. irretrievable breakdown of marriage 8 / 30 23. Which of the following sections of the Indlan Contract Act, 1872 imposes on a person, who sues for damages, a duty to mitigate the loss consequent upon the breach of contract? 1. A. Section 72 2. B. Section 74 3. C. Section 73 4. D. Section 75 9 / 30 22. The theory on which quasi-contractual obligations are based is to prevent unjust enrichment. Who is considered to be the real founder of this theory? 1. A. Lord Mansfield 2. B. Lord Wright 3. C. Lord Radcliffe 4. D. Anson 10 / 30 21. In Carlill v. Carbollic Smoke Ball Co. (1892) 2 QB 484, the court ruled- 1. A. that an offer made to public at large is a nadun pactum 2. B. that a general offer is no offer. 3. C. that an offer can be made only to a particular person 4. D. an offer need not be made to an ascertained person 11 / 30 20. The case Nash v. Inman (1908) 2KBI related to- 1. A. consent 2. B. necessaries 3. C. unlawful agreements 4. D. none of the above 12 / 30 19. An agreement not to raise the plea of limitation is - 1. A. valid and binding 2. B. voidable 3. C. void 4. D. illegal 13 / 30 18. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, in which of the following cases, the presumption of agents personal liability does not arise? 1. A. where an agent contracts for "a merchant resident abroad". 2. B. where the agent does not disclose the name of his principal 3. C. where the principal, though disclosed, cannot be sued 4. D. Where the agent contract with a party who knows that the principal is minor 14 / 30 17. Which of the following is not correct under the Indian Contract Act, 1872? 1. A. the suggestion, as a fact, of that which is not true, by a party to contract, who does not believe it to be true is fraud 2. B. active concealment of a fact by a party to contract, having knowledge or belief of the fact is misrepresentation 3. C. the positive assertion, in a manner not warranted by the information of the person making it, of that which is not true, though he believes it to be true is misrepresentation 4. D. a fraud which did not cause the consent to a contract of the party on whom such fraud was practiced, does not render a contract voidable 15 / 30 16. Match list-l with list-il and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List-I A. Kailash Chand v. Dharm Dass B. B. Ram Saran v. 1 Pyare Lal C. Dewan Chand Bhalla v. Dr Ashok Kumar Bhoil D. Narinder Kumar v. Ramesh Kumar List-II (i) bonafide requirement (ii) surrender of govt. premises (iii) statutory tenant (iv) unauthorized sub-tenant Codes A B C D 1. a) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) 2. b) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) 3. c) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) 4. d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 16 / 30 15. The Transfer of Property Act, 1882 has no application to transfer of property where- 1. A. it takes place by operation of law 2. B. it takes place by act of parties 3. C. it is inter vivos transfer 4. D. none of the above 17 / 30 14. Which of the following would be a valid transfer under the Transfer of Property Act 1882? 1. A. A lets a farm to B on condition that he shall walk a hundred miles in an hour 2. B. A gives Rs. 500 to B on condition that he shall marry A's daughter C. At the date of the transfer C was dead 3. C. A transfers Rs. 500 to B on condition that she shall murder C 4. D. A transfers Rs. 5000 to B on condition that he shall marry with the consent of C, D and E. E dies, B marries with the consent of C and D 18 / 30 13. Section 21 of the Transfer of Property Act,1882 contains provisions relating to- 1. A. contingent interest 2. B. conditional transfers 3. C. transfer to unborn person 4. D. none of the above 19 / 30 12. Which of the following is transferable under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882? 1. A. a mere right to sue 2. B. a decree of a court for mesue profits 3. C. political pension 4. D. none of the above 20 / 30 11. A gifts Rs. 5 lakh to B, reserving to himselt, with B's assent, the right to take back at leisure Rs. I lakh. Which one of the following is correct? 1. A. the gift is void in its entirety 2. B. the gift is valid upto Rs.4 lakh 3. C. the gift is said to be revoked 4. D. the gift takes effect after A's life time 21 / 30 10. Where the mortgagor binds himself to repay the mortgage-money on a certain date and transfers the mortgaged property absolutely to the mortgagee subject to condition that the mortgagee will re-transfer it to the mortgagor upon payment of the mortgage-money, the transaction is called- 1. A. simple mortgage 2. B. usufructuary mortgage 3. C. English mortgage 4. D. anomalous mortgage 22 / 30 9. To carry out the purpose of the Indian Stamp Act, 1899 the rules may by: 1. A. Government of India 2. B. State Government 3. C. Parliament 4. D. State Legislature 23 / 30 8. The power of Collector to certify that full duty chargeable is paid on instrument is contained in: 1. A. section 32 of the Indian Stamp Act 2. B. section 31 of the Indian Stamp Act 3. C. section 30 of the Indian Stamp Act 4. D. section 29 of the Indian Stamp Act 24 / 30 7. The Indian Stamp Act, 1899 came into force on: 1. A. 26th January, 1899 2. B. 27th January, 1899 3. C. 1 July, 1899 4. D. 10th July, 1899 25 / 30 6. 'Bill of Exchange' is defined in: 1. A. Indian Stamp Act 2. B. Negotiable Instrument Act 3. C. Indian Contract Act 4. D. Indian Companies Act 26 / 30 5. Mandatory injunction is granted under Specific Relief Act in: 1. A. Section 37 2. B. Section 38 3. C. Section 39 4. D. Section 41 27 / 30 4. Ground for refusing specific performance of contract: 1. A. when compensation is an adequate relief 2. B. when contract depends upon person qualification of the party 3. C. contract requires constant supervision by the court 4. D. all of the above 28 / 30 3. Section 31 of the Specific Rellef Act 1963 is related to: 1. A. rescission of contracts 2. B. cancellation of instruments 3. C. declaratory decrees 4. D. perpetual injunctions 29 / 30 2. Rescission of contracts may be allowed It: 1. A. where the contract is viodable at the instance of the plaintiff 2. B. when the contract is void 3. C. where the third party acquire the interest in the contract in good faith 4. D. all of the above 30 / 30 1. Specific performance of any contract is granted: 1. A. if provided in the contract 2. B. if the contract is in its nature determinable 3. C. at the discretion of the court 4. D. in all the above Your score is The average score is 45% Restart quiz BEST DISCOUNT ON LAW BOOKS BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW BUY NOW Post navigation HARYANA JUDICIARY EXAM MOCK TEST 6 सरकारी सेवक पर समन की तामील कैसे की जाती है ?