General, Online Test Haryana Judiciary Mock Test 1 66 All The Best Thank you for visit ! share with friends. HARYANA JUDICIARY MOCK TEST 1 1 / 30 30. Provisions of Section 10 of CPC are: 1. A. Directory 2. C. Non-mandatory 3. B. Mandatory 4. D. Discretionary 2 / 30 29. According to Order 2 Rule 3 of CPC, a plain- tiff may unite in the same suit several .......... against the same defendant. 1. A. Issues 2. D. Debts 3. B. Claims 4. C. Causes of actions 3 / 30 28. Which provision of the Cr.P.C. 1973 resem- bles the writ of Habeas Corpus? 1. A. Section 93 2. D. Section 91 3. B. Section 97 4. C. Section 96 4 / 30 27. Which of the following is correct : 1. A. Section 113-Review, Section 114-Revision, Section 115-Reference of the CPC 2. C. Section 113-Reference, Section 114-Re- vision, Section 115-Review of the CPC 3. B. Section 113-Reference, Section 114-Review, Section 115-Revision of the CPC 4. D. None of the above 5 / 30 26. The provision regarding inter-pleader suit has been incorporated in Section: (A) 87 (C) 89 54. Which of the following is correct: 1. B. 90 2. A. 88 3. C. 89 4. D. 87 6 / 30 25. When a decree is passed against the Union of India, execution of such decree shall not be issued unless it remains unsatisfied for the period of... computed from the date of such decree. 1. B. 3 Months 2. A. 1 Month 3. C. 2 Months 4. D. 6 Months 7 / 30 24. Where a decree is to be sent to a Court in another state for execution, it has to be sent by: 1. B. The District Court 2. A. The High Court 3. D. The Court which passed the decree with the consent of the High Court 4. C. The Court which passed the decree 8 / 30 23. The general power of transferring suits under Section 24 of CPC lies with 1. B. High Court and Supreme Court 2. A. High Court and the District Court 3. C. High Court 4. D. District Court 9 / 30 22. Article………..of the Constitution of India vests the residuary power of legislation with the Parliament. 1. C. 247 2. B. 248 3. A. 246 4. D. 250 10 / 30 21. Which of the following Sections lays down the rule that the discretionary power of the Court to grant specific performance is not arbitrary but sound and reasonable? 1. A. 10 2. B. 14 3. C. 20 4. D. None of the above 11 / 30 20. Which of the following Sections deals With specific performance of a part of a contract: 1. A. 10 2. B. 12 3. C. 11 4. D. 13 12 / 30 19. Which of the following Is provided under Sec- tion 9 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930? 1. A. Ascertainment of price 2. B. Conditions and warranties 3. C. Agreement to sell 4. D. All the above 13 / 30 18. H takes property belonging to S out of the possession of S in good faith, believing at the time when he takes it, that the property be- Tongs to himself. Later on realizing his mistake, H continues to appropriate the property to his own use. H has committed the offence of 1. A. Robbery 2. B. Criminal breach of trust 3. C. Criminal Misappropriation 4. D. Cheating 14 / 30 17. The case of Pakala Narain Swamy v. Emperor relates to: 1. B. Dying Declaration 2. A. Doctrine of Estoppel 3. C. Cross Examination 4. D. Accomplice 15 / 30 16. In which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, special provision is mentioned regarding evidence relating to electronic record? 1. B. Section 65A 2. A. Section 59 3. C. Section 63 4. D. Section 67A 16 / 30 15. Dumb witness may give his evidence by writ- ing or signs in open court such evidence shall be deemed to be: 1. A. Written evidence 2. C. Not admissible in evidence 3. B. Oral evidence 4. D. It depends on the discretion of the Court to accept it or not 17 / 30 14. A is tried for the murder of B by poison. The fact that before the death of B, A procured poison similar to that which was administered to B is: 1. A. Relevant 2. C. Partly relevant 3. B. Non relevant 4. D. Neither relevant nor irrelevant 18 / 30 13. In which of the following circumstance a surety stands discharged? 1. A. By release or discharge of the principal debtor 2. C. (a) and (b) both 3. B. By variance in the terms of contract 4. D. None of these 19 / 30 12. Under Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 in which of the following relation an agreement in restraint of trade is valid: 1. A. Mutual adjustment 2. B. Business contingency 3. C. Sale of goodwill 4. D. None of these 20 / 30 11. The consequences of non-compliance with the order to answer interrogatories or for discovery or inspection of documents have been dealt with under 1. A. Order XI Rule 12 of the Civil Procedure Code ner comes to know of 2. B. Order XII Rule 12 of the Civil Procedure 3. C. Order XI Rule 21 of the Civil Procedure Code 4. D. Order XII Rule 21 of the Civil Procedure Code 21 / 30 10. Which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with right to lodge a caveat? 1. A. Section 148 of the Civil Procedure Code 2. C. Şection 147 of the Civil Procedure Code 3. B. Section 148A of the Civil Procedure Code 4. D. Section 146 of the Civil Procedure Code 22 / 30 9. The limitation period for filing a suit by a person dispossessed of immovable property is 1. A. Within six months from the date of dis- possession 2. B. Within six months from the date on which the pe the dispossession 3. C. Within twelve months from the date of possession 4. D. Within twelve months from the date on which the petitioner comes to know of the dispossession 23 / 30 8. Where the price of the goods under a con- tract of sale is to be fixed by the valuation of a third party who falls to fix the valuation, but goods are supplied to the buyer, under Section 10 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, the buyer is 1. A. Liable to pay the reasonable price of the goods 2. B. Liable to pay the minimum price of the goods 3. C. Not liable to pay any price until fixed by the valuer 1041 of urt 4. D. Liable to pay the maximum retail price 24 / 30 7. The period of limitation for a review of the judgments 1. A. 30 days 2. B. 90 days 3. C. 60 days 4. D. 180 days 25 / 30 6. Under the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956, the custody of a minor who has not completed the age of ............... years shall be with the mother ordinarily. 1. A. 5 2. B. 2 3. C. 6 4. D. 10 26 / 30 5. The limitation period for initiating action where no perlod of limitation is prescribed anywhere is 1. A. Three years from the date on which the right to apply accrues 2. B. One year from the date on which the right to apply accrues 3. C. Anytime from the date on which the right to apply accrues 4. D. None of the above 27 / 30 4. The general rules of succession In case of a female Hindu have been laid down in Section ……. of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956. 1. C. 12 2. B. 15 3. A. 11 4. D. 14 28 / 30 3. In his will, Mr. Y wrote: "I intend my property to be equally divided between my three children A, S and H." A dishonestly scratched out the name of H, intending that It may be believed that the whole of the property was left to the divided between H and himself alone. A is guilty of 1. B. Forgery 2. A. Cheating 3. D. Theft 4. C. Misappropriation 29 / 30 2. The doctrine of Necessity has been elaborately consldered in the landmark decision of 1. A. Rv. McNaghten (1843) 8 Eng Rep 718 2. C. Rv. Dudley and Stephens (1884) 14 QBD 273 3. B. Basdev v. State of PEPSU AIR 1956 SC 488 4. D. Bimbadar Pradhan v. State of Orissa AIR 1956 SC 469 30 / 30 1. The cardinal principle of Criminal Law Nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege means 1. A. No crime or punishment can exist without a pre-existing penal law 2. B. A man is presumed to be innocent until proven guilty 3. C. Ignorance of law is no excuse 4. D. An act must be accompanied by a criminal intent to constitute an offence Your score is The average score is 53% Restart quiz