General, General Test, Online Test MOCK TEST 17 JUDICIAL SERVICE EXAM 2021 1 All The Best Thank you for visit ! share with friends. JUDICIAL SERVICE EXAM MOCK TEST 17 1 / 25 25. If a person, with a knowledge that the feelings of group of people is likely to be wounded, trespasses a place set apart for the performance of funeral rights, he commitsa crime described under Section: 1. A. Section 298 Indian Penal Code 2. B. Section 297 Indian Penal Code 3. C. Section 295 Indian Penal Code 4. D. Section 296 Indian Penal Code 2 / 25 24. against fine from the persons violating traffic rules. Instead of depositing the fine money with State Treasury, he utilized the same for his personal use. What offence under Indian Penal Code, the police officer has committed? 1. A. Criminal breach of trust 2. B. Mischief 3. C. Cheating the Government 4. D. None of the above 3 / 25 23. The term 'unlawful assembly' means: 1. A. An assembly of five or more persons 2. B. An assembly of five or more persons armed with lethal weapons 3. C. An assembly of five or more persons with a common object of doing a crime 4. D. An assembly of minimum two persons having common intention to commit a crime 4 / 25 22. Statement No. 1: Directive Principles of State Policy are not enforceable by any Court Statement No, 2: Directive Principles of State Policy are fundarnental in the governance of the country. 1. A. Both the statements are true 2. B. Both the statements are false 3. C. Statement No. 1 is true but Statement No. 2 is false 4. D. Statement No. 2 is true but Statement No. 1 is fasle 5 / 25 21. Which of the following is a constitutional right but not a fundamental right? 1. A. Protection of life and personal liberty 2. B. Right to move freely throughout the territory of India 3. C. Right to assemble peaceably 4. D. A Right to hold property 6 / 25 20. The Supreme Court has held that right to fly the National Flag with respect and dignity is a fundamental right of every citizen within the meaning of Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India in the case of: 1. A. Keshvanand Bharti v. State of Kerala 2. B. Abhay Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh 3. C. Union of India v. Naveen Jindai 4. D. Shabnam Hashmi v. Union of India 7 / 25 19. Under the Rajasthan Municipalities Act, 2009 a person, against whom an order has been passed under Section 117 of the Code of Criminal Procedure in the proceedings instituted under Section 110 of the said Code; and such other has not been subsequently reversed, is disqualified for being chosen as member of a Municipality: 1. A. forever 2. B. for a period of six years 3. C. for a period specified by the State Government 4. D. until expiry of the period for which he is ordered to furnish security 8 / 25 18. If any dispute arises between a Panchavati Raj Institution and other Local Authority, the same shall be referred to: 1. A. The Civil Court 2. B. The Public Service Commission 3. C. The State Government 4. D. The Divisional Commissioner 9 / 25 17. Under the Rajasthan Panchayati Rai Aet 1994, the functions and powers of Zila Parishad are speficied in: 1. A. First Schedule 2. B. Second Schedule 3. C. Third Schedule 4. D. Fourth Schedule 10 / 25 16. Under the Rajasthan Right to Hearing Act, 2012, the power to make rules to carry out the purposes of the enactment has been Commissioner conferred on: 1. A. The State Government 2. B. The Chief Information 3. C. The Board of Revenue 4. D. None of the above 11 / 25 15. Where the plaintiff, in a suit for specific performance, proves the existence of the agreement and its non-performance by the defendant, the Court: 1. A. is bound to issue a decree for specific performance 2. B. can refuse to issue a decree for specific performance on the ground of inadequacy of consideration 3. C. is not bound to issue a decree for specific performance, since the relief is discretionary 4. D. None of the above 12 / 25 14. In the Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955, such provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 which do not apply to the suit or proceedings under that Act are contained in: 1. A. First Schedule 2. B. Second Schedule 3. C. Third Schedule 4. D. Fourth Schedule 13 / 25 13. Under which provision of the Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956, any dispute concerning any boundaries can be decided by the Land Records Officer? 1. A. Section 109 2. B. Section 110 3. C. Section 112 4. D. Section 111 14 / 25 12. Under the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, which of the following landlord is entitled to recover immediate possession of a residential premises: 1. A. A retired member of any Armed Forces of the Union 2. B. A retired employee of the Central Government 3. C. A retired employee of the State Owned Corporation 4. D. All the above 15 / 25 11. In the arbitral proceedings, where a party fails to appear at an oral hearing or fails to produce documentary evidence: 1. A. The Tribunal has no power to continue the proceedings and to give its award 2. B. The Tribunal shall terminate the arbitral proceedings 3. C. The Tribunal has power to continue the proceedings and to give its award 4. D. None of the above 16 / 25 10. Unless otherwise agreed by the parties, the arbitral proceedings, in respect of a particular dispute commence on the date: 1. A. when the arbitrator is appointed by the parties 2. B. on which a request for that dispute to be referred to arbitration is received by the respondent 3. C. when the matter is referred to arbitrator for settlement 4. D. when the arbitrator takes notice of the dispute for further proceedings 17 / 25 9. Under Section 173 of the Motor Vehicles Act. a person aggrieved by an award of the Tribunal can prefer an appeal to 1. A. The Supreme Court 2. B. The High Court 3. C. The District Court 4. D. None of the above 18 / 25 8. The land, for the beneficial enjoyment of which easement exists, is called: 1. A. Servient heritage 2. B. Dominant heritage 3. C. Extinct heritage 4. D. None of the above 19 / 25 7. The Rule of 'res ipsa loquitur' is related to the tort of: 1. A. Negligence 2. B. False Imprisonment 3. C. Defamation 4. D. Malicious Prosecution 20 / 25 6. The rule of 'strict liability' propounded in the case of Rylands v. Fletcher is not applicable: 1. A. When the damage is due to vis major 2. B. When the damage is due to wrongful act of stranger 3. C. When the damage is due to t plaintiff's own fault 4. D. All the above 21 / 25 5. In a criminal trial , without producing the Chemical Examiner to the Government , the report given by him upon a thing duly submitted for analysis in the course of any proceeding under the Code of Criminal Procedure : 1. A. Cannot be used as evidence 2. B. Can be used as evidence only in summons Cases 3. C. Can be used as evidence 4. D. Can be used only to refresh memory of the investigation officer coming in evidence 22 / 25 4. The offence affecting the socio - economic condition of the country , to which ples bargaining is not applicable , shall be notified by : 1. A. The State Government 2. B. The Scheduled Castes / Scheduled Tribes Commission 3. C. The Human Rights Commission 4. D. The Central Government 23 / 25 3. In a summons ense , when the accused appears or is brought before the Magistrate it shall not be necessary to : 1. A. State the particulars of the offence of which he is accused 2. B. Ask whether he pleads guilty 3. C. Ask whether he has any defence to make 4. D. Frame a formal charge 24 / 25 2. To whom , as per Section 98 of the Code of Criminal Proceduro , a compinint on oath for restoration of in abducted female child to the person having her owus charge , maybe presented ? 1. A. The District Magistrate 2. B. The Sub Divisional Magistrate 3. C. The Magistrate First Class 4. D. All the above 25 / 25 1. For the purpose of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 , who from amongst the following , may determine the language each Court in the State other than the High 1. A. The High Court of the State 2. B. The Supreme Court of India 3. C. The State Government 4. D. The Legislative Assembly of the State Your score is The average score is 80% Restart quiz
