General, General Test, Online Test MOCK TEST 18 JUDICIAL SERVICE EXAM 2021 0 All The Best Thank you for visit ! share with friends. JUDICIAL SERVICE EXAM MOCK TEST 18 1 / 30 30. A dumb person is a competent witness as provided under 1. A. Section 118 of the Evidence Act 2. B. Section 119 of the Evidence Act 3. C. Section 120 of the Evidence Act 4. D. Section 121 of the Evidernce Act 2 / 30 29. A confession made in police custody is admissible under Section 26 of Evidence Act 1. A. if made in the presence of a doctor 2. B. if made in the presence of a captain of a ressel 3. C. if made in the presence of a Magistrate 4. D. none of the above 3 / 30 28. A communication made to the spouse during marriage, under Section 122 of Evidence Act 1. A. remains privileged communication after the dissolution of marriage by divorce or death 2. B. does not remain privileged after the dissolution of marriage by divorce or death 3. C. does not remain privileged after the dissolution of marriage by divorce, but remains privileged even after death 4. D. remains privileged after the dissolution of marriage by divorce but not so on after death 4 / 30 27. Power under Section 311 of Cr.P.C. can be exercised by the Court 1. A. to recall any witness(es) already Examined 2. B. to summon any witness who has been cited as a witness but not produced or examined before the evidence is closed 3. C. to summon any witness who has not been cited as a witness 4. D. all the above 5 / 30 26. Hearing on sentence by a Magistrate is required, on conviction 1. A. in a summons trial case under Section 255(2) of Cr.P.C. 2. B. in a warrant trial case under Section 248(2) of Cr.P.C. 3. C. both (A) & (B 4. D. neither (A) nor (B) 6 / 30 25. FIR is not a substantive evidence, it can be used during trial 1. A. to corroborate the informant 2. B. to contradict the informant 3. C. both (A) & (B) 4. D. neither (A) nor (B) 7 / 30 24. FIR can be filed under which Section of Cr.P.C. 1. A. Section 151 2. B. Section 154 3. C. Section 155 4. D. Section 54 8 / 30 23. Compounding of offence under Section 320 of Cr.P,C. results in Government Government or Central 1. A. acquittal of the accused under all circumstances 2. B. acquittal of the accused only where the charges has already been framed 3. C. discharge of the accused where the charge has not yet been framed 4. D. either (B) or (C) 9 / 30 22. Cognizable offence has been defined 1. A. under Section 2(a) 2. B. under Section 2(c) 3. C. under Section 2(i) 4. D. under Section 2(k) 10 / 30 21. A Public Prosecutor for the High Court is appointed under Section 24 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 by the without 1. A. Central consultation with the High Court 2. B. State Government without consultation with the High Court 3. C. State Government after consultation with the Central Government 4. D. State Government after consultation with the High Court 11 / 30 20. A proclamation under Section 82 of Cr.P.c can be issued against a person against whom a warrant has been issued. Thus a proclamation can be issued against 1. 1. accused offender 2. 2. a surety 3. 3. a witness 4. 4. all the above 12 / 30 19. A confessional statement recorded accordance with the special procedure under Section 164 of Cr.P.C. 1. A. can be used as a substantive evidence without being formally proved 2. B. cannot be used as a evidence at all 3. C. cannot be used as a substantive evidence without being formally proved substantive 4. D. either (B) or (C) 13 / 30 18. Pleading can be amended 1. A. before the trial court 2. B. before the first appellate court 3. C. before the second appellate court 4. D. all of the above 14 / 30 17. In which of the following cases res-judicata is not applicable 1. A. consent/compromise decree 2. B. dismissal in default 3. C. both (A) & (B) 4. D. none of the above 15 / 30 16. In case the suit has been instituted in a court having no jurisdiction, territorial or pecuniary, the plaint is liable to be 1. A. returned 2. B. rejected 3. C. either (A) or (B) 4. D. none of the above 16 / 30 15. Civil Procedure Code provides for 1. A. temporary injunction 2. B. permanent injunction 3. C. mandatory injunction 4. D. none of the above 17 / 30 14. An executing court 1. A. can modify the terms of the decree 2. B. can vary the term of the decree 3. C. can modify and vary the terms of the decree 4. D. can neither modify nor vary the terms of the decree 18 / 30 13. Abatement means 1. A. A suspension or termination of proceedings in an action for want of proper parties 2. B. the process of bringing on record legal representatives of the deceased party 3. C. both A and B 4. D. none of the above 19 / 30 12. A temporary injunction can be granted to a party establishing 1. A. a prina facie case in his favour 2. B. balance of convenience in his favour 3. C. irreparable injury to him in the event of non-grant of injunction 4. D. all of the above 20 / 30 11. A suit through 'next friend' can be filed by 1. A. a dunatic 2. B. minor 3. C. both (A) & (B) 4. D. none of the above 21 / 30 10. A necessary party is one in whose 1. A. absence no order can be made effectively 2. B. absence an order can be made but whose presence is necessary for the complete decision of the case 3. C. only B is correct 4. D. none of above 22 / 30 9. Ajudgment passed by a court can be reviewed 1. A. by the court passing the judgment 2. B. by the court of District Judge 3. C. by the High Court 4. D. All of the above 23 / 30 8. A decree can be 1. A. preliminary 2. B. final 3. C. either preliminary or final 4. D. none of the above 24 / 30 7. Under which Section of the Civil Procedure Code a second appeal can be filed 1. A. Section 99 2. B. Section 100 3. C. Section 99A 4. D. Section 100A 25 / 30 6. A minor, who has been admitted to the benefits of the partnership, under Section 30(5) of the Indian Partnership Act on attaining majority has to exercise an option, to stay or to leave the fir, within 1. A. one month of attaining majority 2. B. six months of attaining majority 3. C. 90 days of attaining majority 4. D. none of the above 26 / 30 5. A firm is liable to be compulsorily dissolved under Section 41 of the Indian Partnership Act on adjudication of 1. A. all the partners as insolvents 2. B. all but one of the partners as insolvents 3. C. either (A) or (B) 4. D. neither (A) nor (B) 27 / 30 4. A dissolution of a firm can be claimed un Section 44(e) of the Indian Partnership Art where a partner has transferred his interes in the partnership firm to 1. A. a partner 2. B. a third party 3. C. all the partners 4. D. none of the above 28 / 30 3. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is 1. A. 100-years-old man 2. B. 6-years-old boy 3. C. 12-years-old girl 4. D. 18-years old girl 29 / 30 2. Which one of the following is an essential ingredient of sedition? 1. A. Dishonest intention 2. B. Mala fide intention 3. C. Words spoken must cause public disorder by acts of violence 4. D. Words spoken must be capable of exciting disaffection towards the Government 30 / 30 1. Under which of the following situations the Indian Courts would have jurisdiction? 1. Crime committed by an Indian in a foreign country 2. Crime committed by a foreigner in India Crime committed by a person on an Indian ship 1. A. 1 and 2 2. B. 1 and 3 3. C. 1, 2 and 3 4. D. 2 alone Your score is The average score is 0% Restart quiz
